Friday, 22 May 2015

What exactly is the "Law" mentioned in Galatians?

Galatians 2:11-14 NLT
But when Peter came to Antioch, I had to oppose him to his face, for what he did was very wrong. When he first arrived, he ate with the Gentile believers, who were not circumcised. But afterward, when some friends of James came, Peter wouldn’t eat with the Gentiles anymore. He was afraid of criticism from these people who insisted on the necessity of circumcision. As a result, other Jewish believers followed Peter’s hypocrisy, and even Barnabas was led astray by their hypocrisy. When I saw that they were not following the truth of the gospel message, I said to Peter in front of all the others, “Since you, a Jew by birth, have discarded the Jewish laws and are living like a Gentile, why are you now trying to make these Gentiles follow the Jewish traditions?
A very critical point to note when understanding the book of Galatians. Paul describes how Peter forsakes his liberty by refusing to eat with the Gentiles when some of their Jewish friends arrives. For the fear of Criticism, Peter demonstrated a lack of conviction in Justification by faith in Christ. Fear of what? Jewish Traditions of eating only with the Circumcised (the issue is not with the 10 Commandments, i.e Murder, Theft, Adultry, etc.). On this basis, he continued,
Galatians 2:17-21 NLT
But suppose we seek to be made right with God through faith in Christ and then we are found guilty because we have abandoned the law. Would that mean Christ has led us into sin? Absolutely not! Rather, I am a sinner if I rebuild the old system of law I already tore down. For when I tried to keep the law, it condemned me. So I died to the law—I stopped trying to meet all its requirements—so that I might live for God. My old self has been crucified with Christ. It is no longer I who live, but Christ lives in me. So I live in this earthly body by trusting in the Son of God, who loved me and gave himself for me. I do not treat the grace of God as meaningless. For if keeping the law could make us right with God, then there was no need for Christ to die.
This is consistent with the issue he is trying to address with the Galatian Christians; False teachers who are trying to introduce Jewish Traditions as part of the process besides Justification of Faith by Christ Jesus.
Galatians 2:4, 11-13 NLT
Even that question came up only because of some so-called believers there—false ones, really —who were secretly brought in. They sneaked in to spy on us and take away the freedom we have in Christ Jesus. They wanted to enslave us and force us to follow their Jewish regulations. But when Peter came to Antioch, I had to oppose him to his face, for what he did was very wrong. When he first arrived, he ate with the Gentile believers, who were not circumcised. But afterward, when some friends of James came, Peter wouldn’t eat with the Gentiles anymore. He was afraid of criticism from these people who insisted on the necessity of circumcision. As a result, other Jewish believers followed Peter’s hypocrisy, and even Barnabas was led astray by their hypocrisy.
And on this basis, he begin to address the Galatians on the falling back into Jewish Traditions (Not 10 Commandments). We can then understand the rest of Galatians with this foundation understanding.
Galatians 3:1-4 NLT
Oh, foolish Galatians! Who has cast an evil spell on you? For the meaning of Jesus Christ’s death was made as clear to you as if you had seen a picture of his death on the cross. Let me ask you this one question: Did you receive the Holy Spirit by obeying the law of Moses? Of course not! You received the Spirit because you believed the message you heard about Christ. How foolish can you be? After starting your new lives in the Spirit, why are you now trying to become perfect by your own human effort? Have you experienced so much for nothing? Surely it was not in vain, was it?

What does it mean by "exceedingly abundantly" in Eph 3:21

Ephesians 2:8-10 NKJV
For by grace you have been saved through faith, and that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God, not of works, lest anyone should boast. For we are His workmanship, CREATED IN CHRIST JESUS FOR GOOD WORKS, which God prepared beforehand that WE SHOULD WALK IN THEM.
Earlier in Chapter 2, Paul explains why why we are saved into his Kingdom, granted that is not of Works, as we are not justified based on Works but by faith. But we are "CREATED IN CHRIST JESUS FOR GOOD WORKS" as mentioned, which "God prepared beforehand that WE SHOULD WALK IN THEM". So that later in chapter 3,
Ephesians 3:14-21 NKJV
For this reason I bow my knees to the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, from whom the whole family in heaven and earth is named, that He would grant you, according to the RICHES OF HIS GLORY (His Glory, nothing to do with material riches), to be strengthened with might (ah, so riches of his Glory is for strength, in what?) through His Spirit in the inner man, that Christ may dwell in your hearts through faith; that you, BEING ROOTED AND GROUNDED IN LOVE, may be able to comprehend with all the saints what is the width and length and depth and height— to know the love of Christ LOVE OF CHRIST; that YOU MAY BE FILLED WITH ALL THE FULLNESS OF GOD (Refer to Chapter 2:8-10, context is good works, Riches of his Glory for Strength and Love of Christ for Good Works!). Now to Him who is able to do exceedingly abundantly (As previously mentioned, Fullness of the Goodness of God, which manifests as good works in us), above all that we ask or think (Being a very matured Church under Paul's ministry, they desire to walk in his ways, therefore they "ask or think" about fulfilling his will in their lives), according to the power that works in us, to Him be glory in the church by Christ Jesus to all generations, forever and ever. Amen.

1 John is written to Gnostic Jews??

1 John is written to Gnostic Jews?? Ok, if they exists, Jews (not exactly a large community) + Gnostic (a Rarity), is not exactly a huge audience. May I ask, what is 1 John doing here, being Canonized as a Christian bible, written for a minority group, and not relevant to the rest of the world?? Even if it's written to Jews, It has to be relevant to us, and if its relevant to us, it's important to read and understand it!
I John 1:6-10 NKJV
If we say that we have fellowship with Him, and walk in darkness, we lie and do not practice the truth. But if we walk in the light as He is in the light, we have fellowship with one another, and the blood of Jesus Christ His Son cleanses us from all sin. If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. If we confess our sins, He is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. If we say that we have not sinned, we make Him a liar, and His word is not in us.
I John 2:3-6 NKJV
Now by this we know that we know Him, if we keep His commandments. He who says, “I know Him,” and does not keep His commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him. But whoever keeps His word, truly the love of God is perfected in him. By this we know that we are in Him. He who says he abides in Him ought himself also to walk just as He walked.
One lie leads to another, the Grace doctrine just doesn't hold up. Take heed!

As Jesus is, so are we in this world.

As Jesus is, so are we in this world.
Jesus is what? Your health? Your Wealth? And everything else?
God is Love. His Love abides in us. And we are in the world. And Love has been perfected among us in this: that we may have boldness in the day of judgment; 
BECAUSE AS HE IS (God's Love), SO ARE WE (Demonstrating God's Love by loving one another) IN THIS WORLD
I John 4:12-19 NKJV
No one has seen God at any time. If we love one another, God abides in us, and His love has been perfected in us. By this we know that we abide in Him, and He in us, because He has given us of His Spirit. And we have seen and testify that the Father has sent the Son as Savior of the world. Whoever confesses that Jesus is the Son of God, God abides in him, and he in God. And we have known and believed the love that God has for us. God is love, and he who abides in love abides in God, and God in him.
Love has been perfected among us in this: that we may have boldness in the day of judgment; BECAUSE AS HE IS, SO ARE WE IN THIS WORLD. There is no fear in love; but perfect love casts out fear, because fear involves torment. But he who fears has not been made perfect in love. We love Him because He first loved us.

Does Luke 17:6 Confirm Positive Confession?

Does Luke 17:6 Confirm Positive Confession?

 6 So the Lord said, “If you have faith as a mustard seed, you can say to this mulberry tree, ‘Be pulled up by the roots and be planted in the sea,’ and it would obey you. 7 And which of you, having a servant plowing or tending sheep, will say to him when he has come in from the field, ‘Come at once and sit down to eat’? 8 But will he not rather say to him, ‘Prepare something for my supper, and gird yourself and serve me till I have eaten and drunk, and afterward you will eat and drink’? 9 Does he thank that servant because he did the things that were commanded him? I think not.[c] 10 So likewise you, when you have done all those things which you are commanded, say, ‘We are unprofitable servants. We have done what was our duty to do.’” - Luke 17:6-10

 In Verse 7-10, there is an analogy of a Master and his Servant. To "eat and drink" is basically a reward at the end of the Servant's labour. To "prepare supper, gird yourself and serve" is basically a fulfillment THE WILL OF THE MASTER. Basically when Jesus is trying to say is, you don't ask for a reward before you labour in obedience (to Righteous Kingdom works). And if you serve the master before yourself, you yield to his will (Commandments). This is consistent with the attitude of praying according to HIS WILL, and not our own will. So the answer is "NO", you CANNOT POSITIVE CONFESS your way to whatever you wish for...

 True Faith in God is demonstrated by Jesus :
41 And He was withdrawn from them about a stone’s throw, and He knelt down and prayed, 42 saying, “Father, if it is Your will, take this cup away from Me; nevertheless NOT MY WILL, BUT YOURS, BE DONE.” - Luke 22:41

Tuesday, 12 May 2015

Sarah is not Mother Grace


1. Sarah is Grace, Hagar is Law?
00:00 - 00:40 - Sarah is Grace, Hagar is Law? So it's an error to bring Hagar (Law) back into the church? Inappropriate for Hagar to raise Isaac who is Sarah's Child? Woh woh woh, let's stop for a second. Before we go on with this train of thought, let's see what the bible says about this fundamental concept of, Sarah=Grace and Hagar = Law.

"21 Tell me, you who desire to be under the law, do you not hear the law? 22 For it is written that Abraham had two sons: the one by a bondwoman, the other by a freewoman. 23 But he who was of the bondwoman was born according to the flesh, and he of the freewoman through promise, 24 which things are symbolic. For these are the[d] two covenants: the one from Mount Sinai which gives birth to bondage, which is Hagar— 25 for this Hagar is Mount Sinai in Arabia, and corresponds to Jerusalem which now is, and is in bondage with her children— 26 but the Jerusalem above is free, which is the mother of us all.27 For it is written:

“Rejoice, O barren,
You who do not bear!Break forth and shout,You who are not in labor!For the desolate has many more childrenThan she who has a husband.”[e
And it is marvelous in our eyes’? - Matt 21:42


28 Now we, brethren, as Isaac was, are children of promise. 29 But, as he who was born according to the flesh then persecuted him who was born according to the Spirit, even so it is now. 30 Nevertheless what does the Scripture say?“Cast out the bondwoman and her son, for the son of the bondwoman shall not be heir with the son of the freewoman.”[f] 31 So then, brethren, we are not children of the bondwoman but of the free. ]"  - Galatians 4:21-31

a. Was this passage is even talking about Law vs Grace? How was that derived from? One thing for sure, v24 says, "For these are the[d] two covenants". Which 2 Covenants? V22 says Abraham had two sons: the one by a bondwoman, the other by a freewoman. Evidently, the bondwoman (Hagar) is the old covenant, the freewoman (Sarah) is the new covenant.  Does the old covenant necessarily mean the Law of God?

b. Galatians was written because some false teachers has infiltrated to the Church of Galatia, instigating them to go back to circumcision and observation of days and months of the Judaic faith. Paul says in v9,  " how is it that you turn again to the weak and beggarly elements, to which you desire again to be in bondage? 10 You observe days and months and seasons and years. 11 I am afraid for you, lest I have labored for you in vain. "
In fact  in Chapter Gal 5:3-4, Paul says, "  And I testify again to every man who becomes circumcised that he is a debtor to keep the whole law. You have become estranged from Christ, you who attempt to be justified by law; you have fallen from grace. "

So what has caused the Galatians to fall from Grace, is it the 10 commandments? Or the beggarly elements like observing dates and circumcision. When you write a letter to address a certain issue, will you jump from one topic to another that is not relevant?

c. Let's jump back to Gal 4:21-31.
v25 says,  
"for this Hagar is Mount Sinai in Arabia, and corresponds to Jerusalem which now is, and is in bondage with her children."
v26 says,
"but the Jerusalem above is free, which is the mother of us all."

Evidently, Paul describes 2 Jerusalems for 2 covenants. The Jerusalem which is now, is old covenant (Hagar), The Jerusalem which is above, is the new covenant (Sarah). Now, IF the old covenant is of the Law (which Joseph Prince refers to 10 commandments) was the Jerusalem during Paul's time observing the 10 commandments? If your answer is "yes", please read the entire chapter of Matt 23 and Luke 11:37-53. After reading it, are the guardians of Jerusalem upholding the 10 commandments? If your answer is no, then the term, "Jerusalem which is now", can  Paul be referring to the 10 commandments? Or is it Judaic Laws (the Beggarly Elements which he is warning the Galatians about)?

d. So if we can conclude that the Old Covenant here is really referring to the Judaic practices (or Law of Moses, not 10 commandments), and the new covenant is referring to Jesus Christ, doesn't this fit in better with the context of what Paul is trying to address with the Galatians? So when Paul say, "  “Cast out the bondwoman and her son, for the son of the bondwoman shall not be heir with the son of the freewoman.” ", is he not saying cast out the Judaic practices for the ones who practice the Judaic Practices (of the old covenant) shall not be heir with the ones in Jesus Christ?

00:34-0042 - So indeed it's until the Galatians throw out Hagar (Judiac Practices) that Isaac (the Church) was able to blossom.

Remember:
Old Covenant = 10 Commandments (Atonement by Blood of Bulls and Goats)
New Covenant = 10 Commandments (Atonement by Blood of Jesus Christ)

The Law Also called the Word (John 1:1, Deu 8:3, Isa 55:11), the Truth (Ps 119:30,43,142), the Spirit (Rom 7:14), Commandments (1 John 2:3-6). Heaven and Earth will pass away, yet not one letter from his word (the Law) will pass away. Matt 24:35.

2. The Stone at Lazarus's Grave has got to go with the Law?
00:42-01:08 - What has this got to do with the Law? Does every reference from the bible that has the word Stone is referring to the Law? Then how about these?

"and do not think to say to yourselves, ‘We have Abraham as our father.’ For I say to you that God is able to raise up children to Abraham from these stones." - Matt 3:9

"Jesus said to them, “Have you never read in the Scriptures: ‘The stone which the builders rejected, Has become the chief cornerstone. This was the Lord’s doing,

If the word Stone refers to the 10 commandments every time it's mentioned, then isn't it great that Jesus is the Stone (10 Commandments) that the builders rejected? And he has become the Chief CornerStone? Is Joseph Prince therefore giving a sound example of the Law?

3. The world needs 10 commandments, but 10 commandments is a hindrance to the church?
1:10 - 01:45 - "We are not removing the Law from dead people.... we cannot remove the 10 commandment from the people of the world, they still need it for governance... but in the church, it's hindrance, because resurrected people are alive, but behind the stone."

a. Without even referring to the scripture, are these statements incoherent? If a Christian commits a crime, does he go to Jail? And does it mean well meaning, sincere non Christians who does Charity all doing it out of Selfishness with no compassion at all?? The difference between a Christian and a Non-Christian is not the Law, it's in the atonement.

Remember:
Old Covenant = 10 Commandments (Atonement by Blood of Bulls and Goats)
New Covenant = 10 Commandments (Atonement by Blood of Jesus Christ)

b. The law applies to all. But it's the atonement by the blood of Jesus that cleanses us from our sins. But if a Christian wilfully breaks the law, the atonement is not for him because he is actually not born again. So how can the Law be a hindrance to the Church when it is used as a test for genuine believers?

" Now by this we know that we know Him, if we keep His commandments. He who says, “I know Him,” and does not keep His commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him. But whoever keeps His word, truly the love of God is perfected in him. By this we know that we are in Him. He who says he abides in Him ought himself also to walk just as He walked." - 1 John 2:3-6

14 Blessed are those who do His commandments,[g] that they may have the right to the tree of life, and may enter through the gates into the city. 15 But[h]outside are dogs and sorcerers and sexually immoral and murderers and idolaters, and whoever loves and practices a lie. - Revelations 22:14-15

4. If you are perfect, you are disqualified to healing.
2:35-3:00 - So because Abraham (who was perceived as imperfect) prayed for Abimeleh, and Abimelech got healed. So this means that if you pray for healing, you must be imperfect? And if you are perfect you are disqualified?

Firstly, let's look at Abraham. Joseph Prince propose that Abraham is Righteous by faith  without his works? The bible begs to differ,

" And I will make your descendants multiply as the stars of heaven; I will give to your descendants all these lands; and in your seed all the nations of the earth shall be blessed;because Abraham obeyed My voice and kept My charge, My commandments, My statutes, and My laws.”" - Gen 26:4-5

Yes, the bible says Abraham obeyed his voice and kept his charge, his commandments, his statutes, and his laws. Yes, Abraham was righteous by faith, but his faith enable him to be obedient to all of his commandments. Yes, Abraham is not perfect. He betrayed his wife Sarah out of fear.  But that has NOTHING TO DO with his healing prayer for Abimeleh (Gen 20:17-18)!

What did Joseph Prince said about prayer?
"If you are perfect, you are disqualified"

What does the bible says about prayer?
" 15 And the prayer of faith will save the sick, and the Lord will raise him up. And if he has committed sins, he will be forgiven. 16 Confess your trespasses[e] to one another, and pray for one another, that you may be healed. The effective, fervent prayer of a righteous man avails much." - James 5:15-16b

Wednesday, 15 April 2015

Obedience is of the law and brings curses?

Obedience is of the Law? And the Law brings Curses? Men's words or God's words?
"3 Now by this we know that we know Him, if we keep His commandments. 4 He who says, “I know Him,” and does not keep His commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him. 5 But whoever keeps His word, truly the love of God is perfected in him. By this we know that we are in Him. 6 He who says he abides in Him ought himself also to walk just as He walked."
- 1 John 2:3-6 (NKJV)
And the commandments is none other than the 10 commandments, which V7 says, "Which you have had from the beginning". Logically If you love someone, you will not steal, kill, covet, or commit adultery.
7 Brethren,[a] I write no new commandment to you, but an old commandment which you have had from the beginning. The old commandment is the word which you heard from the beginning.[b] 8 Again, a new commandment I write to you, which thing is true in Him and in you, because the darkness is passing away, and the true light is already shining. 9 He who says he is in the light, and hates his brother, is in darkness until now. 10 He who loves his brother abides in the light, and there is no cause for stumbling in him. 11 But he who hates his brother is in darkness and walks in darkness, and does not know where he is going, because the darkness has blinded his eyes.
- 1 John 2:7-11 (NKJV)
Is Apostle John advocating Obedience as a means to obtain Salvation? No where in the bible has taught that, and why should there be any accusation based on that?
"2 My little children, these things I write to you, so that you may not sin. And if anyone sins, we have an Advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous. 2 And He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the whole world."
- - 1 John 2:2 (NKJV)
No, Apostle John is not Advocating justification by Obedience. v3 says, "Now by this we know that we know Him, if we keep His commandments." Obedience is an indicator of whether we know him, whether we are truly walking in the Light.
V4-6 says, "He who says, “I know Him,” and does not keep His commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him. 5 But whoever keeps His word, truly the love of God is perfected in him. By this we know that we are in Him. 6 He who says he abides in Him ought himself also to walk just as He walked."
So the word is very clear,
"I know him" + Keeping his word = Love of God is perfected in him.
"I know him" + Don't keep the word = Liar, and the truth is not in him.
God's word speaks for himself.